Thank you very much for going out your way to do this explanation. It’s something that’s bugged me for a while and I’ve not found a good explanation behind it.

I’m assuming based on this then the median often offers a better “reasonable” person in a given demographic and includes everyone, over mean with top and bottom excluded.

And obviously from your explanation median makes wealth comparisons between nations more accurate.

Probably a really stupid question, but why is the median used for wealth and GDP rather than the mean (with the top and bottom sliced out)?